The title might seem somewhat confusing, but it was the only way I could describe it.
Trying to do something here that I haven't seen done before. I've seen similar examples (see '7 digit dialing' at https://wiki.freeswitch.org/wiki/Home_PBX_Example), but nothing that takes into account area code variability. Looking for opinions/comments if anyone else has had a crack at this.
Scenario is as follows;
Like most countries, we have area codes for regions. If you dial a number in the same area code, you don't need to add the area code. We'd like to allow customers who are calling numbers in their same area code to either dial with or without, but always send these to our upstream carriers as a full number with area code.
e.g.
numbers with area codes are 10 digits (2 digit area code), while numbers without area codes are 8 digits; with area code: 02 8000 9000, or without area code 8000 9000.If the customer is also located in the '02' area code, they could reach the same number using either dialing method.
The variability I mentioned above comes from the different area codes that might be used (02, 03, 07 and 08 in this case). The issues with the example in the link above assumes one area code.
In our situation, each extension is allocated a phone number, so one of the ideas we thought about was implementing a step into the dialplan to break out the extension's area code from the outgoing caller id and then pre-pend this to the number when bridging.
This option means no custom development and no need to maintain an additional setting. Seems relatively straight forward, but before we start hacking a dialplan together, it would be good to see what, if anyone else is doing.
Anyone come across this scenario or have any gotcha's to keep in mind?
Trying to do something here that I haven't seen done before. I've seen similar examples (see '7 digit dialing' at https://wiki.freeswitch.org/wiki/Home_PBX_Example), but nothing that takes into account area code variability. Looking for opinions/comments if anyone else has had a crack at this.
Scenario is as follows;
Like most countries, we have area codes for regions. If you dial a number in the same area code, you don't need to add the area code. We'd like to allow customers who are calling numbers in their same area code to either dial with or without, but always send these to our upstream carriers as a full number with area code.
e.g.
numbers with area codes are 10 digits (2 digit area code), while numbers without area codes are 8 digits; with area code: 02 8000 9000, or without area code 8000 9000.If the customer is also located in the '02' area code, they could reach the same number using either dialing method.
The variability I mentioned above comes from the different area codes that might be used (02, 03, 07 and 08 in this case). The issues with the example in the link above assumes one area code.
In our situation, each extension is allocated a phone number, so one of the ideas we thought about was implementing a step into the dialplan to break out the extension's area code from the outgoing caller id and then pre-pend this to the number when bridging.
This option means no custom development and no need to maintain an additional setting. Seems relatively straight forward, but before we start hacking a dialplan together, it would be good to see what, if anyone else is doing.
Anyone come across this scenario or have any gotcha's to keep in mind?